Exercise 2.7

Supponse that {x ∈ ℜn∣aix ≥ bi,i = 1,…,m} and {x ∈ ℜn∣gix ≥ hi,i = 1,…,k} are two representations of the same nonempty polyhedron. Suppose that the vectors a1,…,am span ℜn. Show that the same must be true for the vectors g1,…,gk.

Answers

Proof. Since {x ∈ ℜn∣aix ≥ bi,i = 1,…,m} is nonempty, it possesses at least one basic feasible solution x∗ (Theorem 2.6). Since x∗∈{x ∈ ℜn∣gix ≥ hi,i = 1,…,k}, there are n linearly independent constraints in {gi∣gi′x = hi} that are active at x∗ (Definition 2.9). By Theorem 2.2., the span of vectors {gi∣i = 1,…,k} is all of ℜn. □

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2021-11-20 16:04
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  • A polyhedron may not have a basic feasible solution (Look at Exercise 4.44b).
    subhams • 2024-10-20

Assume otherwise the vector g1,…,gk do not span ℝn. Then, they are all in a proper subspace of ℝn. Hence, there exists a non-zero vector d ∈ ℝn such that d′gi = 0∀ ⁡i = 1,…,k. Let x0 be an element of the polyhedron represented by {x ∈ ℝn∣gi′x ≥ hi,i = 1,…,k} and {x ∈ ℝn∣ai′x ≥ bi,i = 1,…,m}. Consider the line x0 + λd,λ ∈ ℝ. Note that gi′ (x0 + λd) = gi′x0 ≥ hi∀ ⁡i = 1,…,k. Thus, the line is contained in the polyhedron. Hence, we have ai′(x + λd) ≥ bi,∀ ⁡λ ∈ ℝ∀ ⁡i = 1,…,m. Clearly, d must be orthogonal to all the vectors ai ’s. However, the vectors a1,…,am span ℝn, and hence d = 0. Contradiction. We conclude that the vector g1,…,gk also span ⁡ ℝn.

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2019-03-05 00:00
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