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Exercise 6.1.10

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Probably yes. A smooth function $f (x, y)$ can be written as the difference $g (x, y) - h (x, y)$ within the circle $x^{2} + y^{2} \leq 1$ . Not sure how to prove this though.

niuers

2020-03-20 00:00

Exercise 6.1.10

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