Exercise 1.2.48* (Pentagonal numbers)

The integers 1 , 3 , 6 , 10 , , n ( n + 1 ) 2 , are called the triangular numbers because they are the numbers of dots needed to make successive triangular arrays of dots.For example, the number 10 can be perceived as the number of acrobats in a human triangle, 4 in a row at the bottom, 3 at the next level, then 2 , then 1 at the top. The square numbers are 1 , 4 , 9 , , n 2 , . The pentagonal numbers, 1 , 5 , 12 , 22 , , ( 3 n 2 n ) 2 , , can be seen in a geometric array in the following way. Start with n equally spaced dots P 1 , P 2 , , P n on a straight line in a plane, with distance 1 between consecutive dots. Using P 1 P 2 as a base side, draw a regular pentagon in the plane. Similarly, draw n 2 additional regular pentagons on the base sides P 1 P 3 , P 1 P 4 , , P 1 P n . Mark dots at each vertex and at unit intervals along the sides of these pentagons. Prove that the total number of dots in the array is ( 3 n 2 n ) 2 . In general, if regular k -gons are constructed on the sides P 1 P 2 , P 1 P 3 , , P 1 P N , with dots marked again at unit intervals, prove that the total number of dots is 1 + kn ( n 1 ) 2 ( n 1 ) 2 . This is the n th k -gonal number.

Answers

See figures on Wikipedia:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pentagonal_number

Proof. Write p n the n th pentagonal number (by convention p 0 = 0 ). The value p n is obtain by adding three sides containing n marked dots. We must subtract the 2 summits in common, so, for all integers n 1 ,

p n = p n 1 + 3 n 2 .

(For n = 1 , we obtain p 1 = p 0 + 1 = 1 .) From

p n = p n 1 + 3 n 2 , p n + 1 = p n + 3 n + 1 ,

we obtain by subtraction p n + 1 p n = p n p n 1 + 3 , i.e. p n + 1 = 2 p n p n 1 + 3 ( n ). Thus, for all n ,

p n + 2 = 2 p n + 1 p n + 3 .

We can rewrite this relation using matrices: for all n

( p n + 1 p n + 2 ) = ( 0 1 1 2 ) ( p n p n + 1 ) + ( 0 3 ) ,

i.e.

P n + 1 = A P n + B ,

where

P n = ( p n p n + 1 ) , A = ( 0 1 1 2 ) , B = ( 0 3 ) , P 0 = ( 0 1 ) .

By an immediate induction, we obtain

P n = A n P 0 + ( A n 1 + A n 2 + + A + I ) B .

Indeed, if P n = A n P 0 + ( A n 1 + A n 2 + + A + I ) B , then

P n + 1 = A P n + B = A ( A n P 0 + ( A n 1 + A n 2 + + A + I ) B ) + B = A n + 1 P 0 + ( A n + A n 1 + + A + I ) B .

We compute A n by standard methods.

Write A = M B ( f ) , where B = ( e 1 , e 2 ) is the canonical basis of 2 . Then ker ( f ) = e 1 , where e 1 = ( 1 , 1 ) . Take for e 2 any non collinear vector, for instance e 2 = ( 0 , 1 ) . Then B = ( e 1 , e 2 ) is a basis, and the transfer matrix is P = ( 1 0 1 1 ) . Then

A = M B ( f ) = P 1 AP = ( 1 1 0 1 ) .

Since A = I + N , where N 2 = 0 , the binomial formula applied to I , N (such that IN = NI ), gives A n = I + nN , so

A n = ( 1 n 0 1 ) .

Therefore

A n = P A n P 1 = ( 1 n n n 1 + n ) .

Then

C n = A n 1 + A n 1 + + A + I = ( k = 0 n 1 ( 1 k ) k = 0 n 1 k k = 0 n 1 k k = 0 n 1 ( 1 k ) ) = ( n n ( n 1 2 n ( n 1 2 n ( n 1 2 n + n ( n 1 2 ) ,

so

C n B = ( 3 n ( n 1 ) 2 ) .

This gives

P n = ( p n ) = ( 1 n n n 1 + n ) ( 0 1 ) + ( 3 n ( n 1 ) 2 ) ,

so p n = n + 3 n ( n 1 ) 2 = 3 n 2 n 2 .

The general case is almost identical. Here p n is the n th k -gonal number.

The induction relations are

p n = p n 1 + rn ( r 1 ) , where  r = k 2 ,

and

p n + 1 = 2 p n p n 1 + r .

The same computing, with B = ( 0 r ) , gives

P n = ( p n ) = ( 1 n n n 1 + n ) ( 0 1 ) + ( r n ( n 1 ) 2 ) ,

thus

p n = n + ( k 2 ) n ( n 1 ) 2 = 1 + k n ( n 1 ) 2 ( n 1 ) 2 .

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2024-06-19 11:23
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