Exercise 1.4.21* (Conundrum 3/8)

Show that if n is a positive integer then

k = 1 n ( 1 ) k + 1 k ( n k ) = k = 1 n 1 k .

Answers

Proof. Consider the function f defined on by

f ( x ) = { 1 ( 1 x ) n x if  x 0 , n if  x = 0 .

Despite appearances, f is a polynomial function, because, for x 0 ,

f ( x ) = 1 ( 1 x ) n 1 ( 1 x ) = 1 + ( 1 x ) + ( 1 x ) 2 + + ( 1 x ) n 1 ,

and f ( 0 ) = n = 1 + ( 1 0 ) + ( 1 0 ) 2 + + ( 1 0 ) n 1 .

Moreover, if x 0 ,

f ( x ) = 1 x ( 1 k = 0 n ( 1 ) k ( n k ) x k ) = k = 1 n ( 1 ) k + 1 ( n k ) x k 1 ,

and this equality remains true if x = 0 . Therefore, for all x ,

f ( x ) = 1 + ( 1 x ) + ( 1 x ) 2 + + ( 1 x ) n 1 = k = 1 n ( 1 ) k + 1 ( n k ) x k 1 .

We compute in two ways 0 1 f ( x ) d x .

First

0 1 f ( x ) d x = 0 1 ( 1 + ( 1 x ) + ( 1 x ) 2 + + ( 1 x ) n 1 ) d x = [ ( 1 x ) ( 1 x ) 2 2 ( 1 x ) n n ] 0 1 = 1 + 1 2 + + 1 n .

Next,

0 1 f ( x ) d x = 0 1 k = 1 n ( 1 ) k + 1 ( n k ) x k 1 d x = k = 1 n ( 1 ) k + 1 ( n k ) 1 k .

This shows

k = 1 n ( 1 ) k + 1 k ( n k ) = k = 1 n 1 k .

User profile picture
2024-07-28 16:30
Comments