Exercise 1.4.22* (Conundrum 4/8)

Show that if m and n are integers, 0 m < n , then

k = 0 m ( 1 ) k ( n k ) = ( 1 ) m ( n 1 m ) .

Answers

Proof. Using the Pascal’s formula,

k = 0 m ( 1 ) k ( n k ) = 1 + k = 1 m ( 1 ) k ( n k ) = 1 + k = 1 m ( 1 ) k [ ( n 1 k 1 ) + ( n 1 k ) ] = 1 + k = 1 m ( 1 ) k ( n 1 k 1 ) + k = 1 m ( 1 ) k ( n 1 k ) = 1 + K = 0 m 1 ( 1 ) K + 1 ( n 1 K ) + k = 1 m ( 1 ) k ( n 1 k ) ( K = k 1 ) = 1 k = 0 m 1 ( 1 ) k ( n 1 k ) + k = 1 m ( 1 ) k ( n 1 k ) = k = 1 m 1 ( 1 ) k ( n 1 k ) + k = 1 m 1 ( 1 ) k ( n 1 k ) + ( 1 ) m ( n 1 m ) = ( 1 ) m ( n 1 m ) .

This proves

k = 0 m ( 1 ) k ( n k ) = ( 1 ) m ( n 1 m ) .

User profile picture
2024-07-28 16:48
Comments