Exercise 1.4.24* (Conundrum 6/8)

Show that

k = 0 2 n ( 1 ) k ( 2 n k ) 2 = ( 1 ) n ( 2 n n ) .

Answers

Proof. We compare the coefficient a 2 n of x 2 n in two expansions of the polynomial

f ( x ) = ( 1 x 2 ) 2 n = k = 0 4 n a i x i .

First

( 1 x 2 ) 2 n = l = 0 2 n ( 1 ) l ( 2 n l ) x 2 l ,

thus

a 2 n = ( 1 ) n ( 2 n n ) .

Next

( 1 x 2 ) 2 n = ( 1 x ) 2 n ( 1 + x ) 2 n = [ k = 0 2 n ( 1 ) k ( 2 n k ) x k ] [ j = 0 2 n ( 2 n j ) x j ] = l = 0 4 n [ k = 0 l ( 1 ) k ( 2 n k ) ( 2 n l k ) ] x l

Thus

a 2 n = k = 0 2 n ( 1 ) k ( 2 n k ) ( 2 n 2 n k ) = k = 0 2 n ( 1 ) k ( 2 n k ) 2

The comparison of the two expressions of a 2 n gives

k = 0 2 n ( 1 ) k ( 2 n k ) 2 = ( 1 ) n ( 2 n n ) .

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2024-07-29 08:13
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