Exercise 1.4.26* (Conundrum 8/8)

Show that

k = 1 n k ( n 2 k + 1 ) = ( n 2 ) 2 n 3 .

Answers

Proof. Here we assume n 2 (the formula is false for n = 1 ).

Note that

S = k = 1 n k ( n 2 k + 1 ) = k = 1 ( n 1 ) 2 k ( n 2 k + 1 ) ,

since ( n 2 k + 1 ) = 0 if k > ( n 1 ) 2 .

If we separate odd and even powers in the binomial formula, we obtain

( 1 + x ) n = k = 0 ( n 1 ) 2 ( n 2 k + 1 ) x 2 k + 1 + k = 0 n 2 ( n 2 k ) x 2 k , (1) ( 1 x ) n = k = 0 ( n 1 ) 2 ( n 2 k + 1 ) x 2 k + 1 + k = 0 n 2 ( n 2 k ) x 2 k . (2)

The difference of (1) and (2) gives

( 1 + x ) n ( 1 x ) n = 2 k = 0 ( n 1 ) 2 ( n 2 k + 1 ) x 2 k + 1 .

In particular, for x = 1 ,

T = k = 0 ( n 1 ) 2 ( n 2 k + 1 ) = 2 n 1 .

The derivation of (1) and (2) gives

n ( 1 + x ) n 1 = k = 0 ( n 1 ) 2 ( 2 k + 1 ) ( n 2 k + 1 ) x 2 k + k = 1 n 2 2 k ( n 2 k ) x 2 k 1 , (3) n ( 1 x ) n 1 = k = 0 ( n 1 ) 2 ( 2 k + 1 ) ( n 2 k + 1 ) x 2 k + k = 1 n 2 2 k ( n 2 k ) x 2 k 1 . (4)

The difference of (3) and (4) gives

n [ ( 1 + x ) n 1 + ( 1 x ) n 1 ] = 2 k = 0 ( n 1 ) 2 ( 2 k + 1 ) ( n 2 k + 1 ) x 2 k .

For x = 1 , using n 2 , we obtain

n 2 n 1 = 2 ( 2 S + T ) = 2 2 S + 2 n .

Therefore

S = k = 1 n k ( n 2 k + 1 ) = ( n 2 ) 2 n 3 .

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2024-07-29 10:21
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