Exercise 2.2.15* (Generalization of Problem 2.1.44)

Show that ( p α 1 k ) ( 1 ) k ( mod p ) for 0 k p α 1 .

Answers

We can generalize proof 1 of proof 2 of Problem 2.1.44.

Proof. By Problem 14, ( 1 + x ) p α = 1 + x p α is true in 𝔽 p [ x ] .

Therefore the polynomial equality

( 1 + x ) p α 1 = 1 + x p α 1 + x = k = 0 p α 1 ( 1 ) k x k .

is true if p is an odd prime, and remains true if p = 2 : in 𝔽 2 , the equality 1 = 1 implies

( 1 + x ) 2 α 1 = ( 1 x ) 2 α 1 = 1 x 2 α 1 x = k = 0 2 α 1 x k = k = 0 2 α 1 ( 1 ) k x k .

By the binomial formula,

k = 0 p α 1 ( p α 1 k ) x k = k = 0 p α 1 ( 1 ) k x k .

This gives the equality in 𝔽 p for 0 k p α 1 ,

[ ( p α 1 k ) ] p = [ ( 1 ) k ] p ,

thus

( p α 1 k ) ( 1 ) k ( mod p ) , 0 k p α 1 .

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2024-08-09 09:30
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