Exercise 2.8.38* (Pocklington's Theorem)

Let m be given, suppose that q is a prime number, q α ( m 1 ) , α > 0 , and that there is a number a such that a m 1 1 ( mod m ) , but ( a ( m 1 ) q 1 , m ) = 1 . Show that p 1 ( mod q α ) for all prime factors p of m .

Answers

Proof. Here m > 1 . Let p be any prime factor of m . Let h be the order of a modulo p . This makes sense because a m 1 1 ( mod m ) shows that a m = 1 , and p m , so p a = 1 .

By Fermat’s Theorem, a p 1 1 ( mod p ) , thus h p 1 .

By hypothesis, a m 1 1 ( mod m ) . A fortiori, a m 1 1 ( mod p ) , because p m . Hence h m 1 .

Moreover, from ( a ( m 1 ) q 1 , m ) = 1 , we deduce that p a ( m 1 ) q 1 , so a ( m 1 ) q 1 ( mod p ) , which implies that h ( m 1 ) q .

Since q α ( m 1 ) , α > 0 , we may write m 1 = q α q 2 α 2 q l α l ( α i > 0 ) the decomposition of m 1 in prime factors. Since h m 1 , h = q β q 2 β 2 q l β l , 0 β i α i , and 0 β α , so ν q ( h ) = β α .

From h ( m 1 ) q = q α 1 q 2 α 2 q l α l , we deduce that ν q ( h ) = β > α 1 (otherwise h ( m 1 ) q ). Hence β = α , so that q α h .

Thus q α h , and h p 1 , so q α p 1 . We may conclude, for every prime divisor p of m , that

p 1 ( mod q α ) .

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2024-09-27 10:11
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