Homepage Solution manuals Ivan Niven An Introduction to the Theory of Numbers Exercise 3.3.5 ($\sum\limits_{j=1}^{p-1} \genfrac{(}{)}{}{}{j}{p} \equiv 0 \pmod p$)

Exercise 3.3.5 ($\sum\limits_{j=1}^{p-1} \genfrac{(}{)}{}{}{j}{p} \equiv 0 \pmod p$)

Prove that j = 1 p 1 ( j p ) 0 ( mod p ) , p an odd prime.

Answers

Proof. Since the there are ( p 1 ) 2 non residues, there exists some integer a such that ( a p ) 1 . If α = [ a ] p 𝔽 p = ( pℤ ) , we define ( α p ) = ( a p ) . This makes sense because ( a p ) depends only of the class of a modulo p .

Put

S = j = 1 p 1 ( j p ) .

Then, for α = [ a ] p ,

( a p ) S = ( a p ) j = 1 p 1 ( j p ) = j = 1 p 1 ( aj p ) = x 𝔽 p ( αx p ) = y 𝔽 p ( y p ) , ( y = αx )

because the map (change of variable)

φ { 𝔽 p 𝔽 p x y = αx

is a bijection.

Since

y 𝔽 p ( y p ) = x 𝔽 p ( x p ) = j = 1 p 1 ( j p ) = S ,

we obtain

( a p ) S = S ,

so ( ( a p ) 1 ) S = 0 , where ( a p ) 1 , therefore

S = j = 1 p 1 ( j p ) = 0 .

(Alternatively, since there are as many residues that non residues in [ [ 1 , p 1 ] ] , there are as many terms equal to 1 than terms equal to 1 in the sum j = 1 p 1 ( j p ) , hence j = 1 p 1 ( j p ) = 0 .) □

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2024-11-01 10:19
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