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Exercise 3.3.5 ($\sum\limits_{j=1}^{p-1} \genfrac{(}{)}{}{}{j}{p} \equiv 0 \pmod p$)
Prove that , an odd prime.
Answers
Proof. Since the there are non residues, there exists some integer such that . If , we define . This makes sense because depends only of the class of modulo .
Put
Then, for ,
because the map (change of variable)
is a bijection.
Since
we obtain
so , where , therefore
(Alternatively, since there are as many residues that non residues in , there are as many terms equal to than terms equal to in the sum , hence .) □