Exercise 4.1.32 ($\nu_p(n!) = (n - S(n))/(p-1)$)

Write n in base p , and let S ( n ) denote the sum of the digits in this representation. Show that p e n ! where a = ( n S ( n ) ) ( p 1 ) .

Answers

Proof. Let n = j = 0 k a j p j the writing of n in base p , where 0 a j < p for all j . Then S ( n ) = j = 0 k a j .

As in the solution of Problem 31, for every i [ [ 0 , k ] ] ,

n = ( j = i k a j p j i ) p i + j = 0 i 1 a j p j ,

where j = 0 i 1 a j p j j = 0 i 1 ( p 1 ) p j = p i 1 < p i . Therefore

n p i = j = i k a j p j i . (1)

The de Polignac’s formula gives

ν p ( n ! ) = i = 1 k n p i ( since  n p i = 0  if  i > k ) = i = 1 k j = i k a j p j i ( by equation (1) ) = j = 1 k i = 1 j a j p j i = j = 1 k a j ( 1 + p + + p j 1 ) = j = 1 k a j p j 1 p 1 = 1 p 1 ( j = 1 k a j p j j = 1 k a j ) = 1 p 1 ( j = 0 k a j p j j = 0 k a j ) ( since  a 0 = a 0 p 0 ) = n S ( n ) p 1 .

We have proved

ν p ( n ! ) = n S ( n ) p 1 .

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2025-01-04 15:51
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