Homepage › Solution manuals › Ivan Niven › An Introduction to the Theory of Numbers › Exercise 4.1.36* ($\mathrm{lcm}\left \{ \binom{n}{0}, \binom{n}{1}, \ldots, \binom{n}{n}\right\} = \frac{1}{n+1} \, \mathrm{lcm}(1,2,\ldots,n, n+1)$)
Exercise 4.1.36* ($\mathrm{lcm}\left \{ \binom{n}{0}, \binom{n}{1}, \ldots, \binom{n}{n}\right\} = \frac{1}{n+1} \, \mathrm{lcm}(1,2,\ldots,n, n+1)$)
Show that the least common multiple of the numbers is l.c.m. .
Answers
From the paper of Bakir FARHI, “An identity involving the least common multiple of binomial coefficients and its application” (Amer. Math. Monthly, 116 (2009), p. 836-839).
http://farhi.bakir.free.fr/publications/data/Qaladji_lcm.pdf
I detailed the arguments of this paper, in the context of Chapter 4 of N.Z.M. and the preceding problems. You may prefer the more concise original.
Proof.
- (a)
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We first show the estimation of
given by B. Farhi, where
is a prime number.
Let be the expansion of in base , where (for ) and . Then
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If , then for all . Suppose that , and put . We write the expansions of in base (here we don’t suppose that ).
Let be the carry added to and , so that the are defined by
(See the solution of Problem 34).
We show by induction that for all .
By definition, .
Suppose now that for some . Then, by equations (2),
thus , where , therefore , thus
The induction is done, which proves that all the carries are zero. By Kummer’s Theorem (Problem 34), , thus for all . This shows that
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Suppose now that . In this case, at least one of the digits of , in base , is different from . So we can define
We have to show that for any ,
and
As in the preceding case, we write , and . By the definition of ,
We show by induction that for all .
By definition, .
Suppose now that for some . Then, by equations (2),
thus , where , therefore , thus
The induction is done, which proves that for . We note that since . Therefore the only possibly nonzero carries are , so the number of nonzero carries is at most . The Kummer’s Theorem (Problem 34) shows that the inequalities (3) are true.
Now consider the special case . The following array summarizes the digits of :
For , , thus and . But , therefore , so , which gives . If we suppose that for some , , then , thus . This induction shows that
and since .
So there are exactly nonzero carries when we add and in base . According to Kummer’s Theorem (Problem 34),
so the equality (4) is proven. By (3) and (4),
The equality (1) is proven in both cases.
-
- (b)
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Now we can prove the main result: for all
,
(we add to the list, so the property remains true if .)
To prove (6), we show that for all prime numbers ,
Since , we know the left member by part (a):
Next
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Suppose first that . If , then . Therefore . Moreover, for , . This shows that , so
-
We suppose next that . Then , and for every , , thus , so
We have proved
It remains to estimate . If , then , so . Otherwise, there is some digit of such that . As in part (a), put
Then
Here , but and , thus . Therefore . This shows that .
To summarize,
Since for all positive integers , the equalities (9) and (10) give
The comparison of (8) and (11) give (7), so (6) is true: for all ,
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Note 1. B. Farhi gives an interesting corollary:
Corollary For every integer ,
Indeed, applying the main result for , we obtain
Note 2. There is an amazing proof of the main result, found at
https://mathandnumberystuff.tumblr.com/post/186773610879/ lcm-of-binomial-coefficients
This proof is based on the properties of the harmonic triangle (Leibniz).
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_harmonic_triangle