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Exercise 16.5
Let and denote a single set in the topologies and , respectively; let and denote a single set in the topologies and , respectively. Assume these sets are nonempty.
- (a)
- Show that if and , then the product topology on is finer than the product topology on .
- (b)
- Does the converse of (a) hold? Justify your answer.
Answers
In what follows let and denote the product topologies on and , respectively.
(a)
Proof. Consider any and any , noting that obviously . Then there is a basis element of such that and . By the definition of the product topology, we have that and are open sets in and , respectively. Then we also have that and since and . Hence is also a basis element of . Since we know that , , and was arbitrary, this suffices to show that is an open subset of and hence . This in turn shows that since was arbitrary. □
(b) We claim that the converse does not always hold.
Proof. As a counterexample consider so that clearly
are topologies on . Clearly also is not finer than . Similarly let so that
are topologies on , also noting that clearly is not finer that . Now let and so that clearly and are in topologies and , respectively, and and are in and , respectively.
Then the bases for the product topologies on and on are then
respectively, since there are no subsets of in or other than and itself, and similarly no subsets of in or other than and . Since their bases are the same, clearly so that it is true that is finer than (though not strictly so). □