Exercise 16.5

Let X and X denote a single set in the topologies T and T, respectively; let Y and Y denote a single set in the topologies U and U, respectively. Assume these sets are nonempty.

(a)
Show that if TT and UU, then the product topology on X× Y is finer than the product topology on X × Y .
(b)
Does the converse of (a) hold? Justify your answer.

Answers

In what follows let Tp and Tp denote the product topologies on X× Y and X × Y , respectively.

(a)

Proof. Consider any W Tp and any (x,y) W, noting that obviously W X × Y . Then there is a basis element U × V of Tp such that (x,y) U × V and U × V W. By the definition of the product topology, we have that U and V are open sets in T and U, respectively. Then we also have that U T and V U since T T and U U. Hence U × V is also a basis element of Tp. Since we know that (x,y) U × V , U × V W, and (x,y) W was arbitrary, this suffices to show that W is an open subset of X× Y and hence W Tp. This in turn shows that Tp Tp since W was arbitrary. □

(b) We claim that the converse does not always hold.

Proof. As a counterexample consider A = {a,b,c,d} so that clearly

T = {,A, {a,b}, {c,d}} T = {,A, {a,b}, {c,d}, {c}, {d}, {a,b,c}, {a,b,d}}

are topologies on A. Clearly also T is not finer than T. Similarly let B = {1,2,3,4} so that

U = {,B, {1,2}, {3,4}} U = {,B, {1,2}, {3,4}, {3}, {4}, {1,2,3}, {1,2,4}}

are topologies on B, also noting that clearly U is not finer that U. Now let X = X = {a,b} and Y = Y = {1,2} so that clearly X and X are in topologies T and T, respectively, and Y and Y are in U and U, respectively.

Then the bases for the product topologies Tp on X × Y and Tp on X× Y are then

B = {,X × Y } B = {,X× Y } = {,X × Y } = B,

respectively, since there are no subsets of X in T or T other than and X itself, and similarly no subsets of Y in U or U other than and Y . Since their bases are the same, clearly Tp = Tp so that it is true that Tp is finer than Tp (though not strictly so). □

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2019-12-01 00:00
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