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Exercise 21.11
Prove the following standard facts about infinite series:
- (a)
- Show that if is a bounded sequence of real numbers and for each , then converges.
- (b)
- Let
be a sequence of real numbers; define
If , we say that the infinite series
converges to also. Show that if converges to and converges to , then converges to .
- (c)
- Prove the comparison test for infinite series: If for each , and if the series converges, then the series converges. [Hint: Show that the series and converge, where .]
- (d)
- Given a sequence of functions ,
let
Prove the Weierstrass M-test for uniform convergence: If for all and all , and if the series converges, then the sequence converges uniformly to a function . [Hint: Let . Show that if , then ; conclude that .]
Answers
(a)
Proof. Clearly image of the sequence is a set of real numbers that is bounded above since the sequence is bounded above. Therefore exists, noting that of course for any since . We claim that . So consider any so that clearly , and hence cannot be an upper bound of (since is the least upper bound). Thus there is an where . Then, for any we have that since the sequence is non-decreasing. Thus we have
since , where denotes the usual metric on . Hence , which shows that the sequence converges to since and were arbitrary. □
(b)
Proof. Define the partials sums
of and so that and by the definition of infinite series. Also define the constant sequence for real , so that of course . For any , we of course have
since these are just finite sums. It then follows from what was shown in Exercise 21.5 that
as desired. □
(c)
Proof. Denote the partial sums
We know that converges by the definition of an infinite series, since converges. So suppose that . We also clearly have that for all , so that each term in both sums is always non-negative. It then follows that the sequence of partial sums and are non-decreasing, and moreover that for all . Lastly, since each , it follows from a simple inductive argument that each . Hence is a non-decreasing sequence that is also bounded (by ), and so it converges by part (a). Therefore the infinite series converges by definition. Denote its convergence value by .
Now, we also have that clearly
for every , and that converges to by what was shown in part (b). Therefore, by the same argument as above, the sequence of partial sums of is non-decreasing and bounded by so that the series converges, say the the value . Then, again by part (b), we have that the series
converges to since both and have been shown to converge. This shows the desired result. □
(d)
Proof. First, since for all and converges, it follows from part (c) that the series converges (as does the sequence ) for each . So set the function to for each . Thus converges pointwise to by Definition 21.6.1, and can be thought of as the (pointwise) infinite sum of the functions .
To show that uniformly, first define
for as the partial series of as in Definition 20.8.1. Now consider any , any , and any . Then we have that
where we note that since each is non-negative. Since the absolute value function is continuous on , it follows from Theorem 21.3 and Exercise 21.5 that the sequence converges as , and moreover converges to since as as shown above. Then, since the above inequality holds for any , it follows from Lemma 20.8.1 that
Now consider any . We know from Lemma 20.8.4 that the sequence of partial series converges to zero since each is non-negative. Hence there is an where for all . Moreover, Lemma 20.8.4 asserts that each so that for all . Thus, for any and any , we have
This suffices to show that uniformly converges to since was arbitrary. □