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Exercise 3.15
Assume that the real line has the least upper bound property.
- (a)
- Show that the sets
have the least upper bound property.
- (b)
- Does in the dictionary order have the least upper bound property? What about ? What about ?
Answers
- (a)
- We show this for both sets simultaneously as their proofs are nearly identical.
We note the minor differences in parentheses.
Proof. Let (or ) and consider any nonempty subset of that is bounded above in . So suppose that is an upper bound of in so that (or ). Now, of course, has a least upper bound in since it is also a nonempty subset of that is bounded above. Obviously, since it is the least upper bound. For any we of course have that so that (or ), and clearly since it is an upper bound of . Thus we have (or ) so that . Hence has a least upper bound in as desired. □
- (b)
- First we claim that both
and
have the least upper bound property. We show this for both sets simultaneously
as their proofs are identical.
Proof. Let (or ). Suppose that is a nonempty subset of that is bounded above and that is an upper bound of in . Then of course we have (or ). Define so that clearly (or ). It then follows that for any since is an upper bound of in the dictionary order. Also clearly is nonempty since is. Thus is a nonempty subset of (or ) that is bounded above (by ) so that it has a least upper bound by what was shown in part (a).
Now, if then set . Otherwise, define . Then, since , there is a where , which shows that and hence . We also clearly have that so that is bounded above by . Then has a least upper bound , again by what was shown in part (a). In either case, we assert that is the least upper bound of in in the dictionary order.
First, it is obvious that is based on how and were defined. Consider any so that , and hence since is the least upper bound of . If then of course , so assume that . Then so that was defined as the least upper bound of . Then we have that since , and thus since is the least upper bound of . This shows that so that we have shown that is an upper bound of since was arbitrary.
To show that it is the least upper bound consider any where . If then there must be an where since cannot be an upper bound of since and is the least upper bound of . Then, since , there is a where . Hence since so that is not an upper bound of . On the other hand, if we must have so that it cannot be that , and hence it must be that . Then there must be a where since cannot be an upper bound of since and is the least upper bound of . Hence , , and so that , which shows that is not an upper bound of . Thus in either case is not an upper bound of , which shows that is the least upper bound since was arbitrary.
This of course completes the proof that has a least upper bound, which shows that has the least upper bound property since was an arbitrary nonempty subset. □
We also claim that does not have the least upper bound property.
Proof. Let . Consider the set , which is clearly a nonempty subset of . This subset also obviously has an upper bound in in the dictionary order, for example, the point . So let be any upper bound of in and suppose for the moment that . Then so that , but then there is a such that . Then so that , but also so that cannot be an upper bound of . So it must be that in fact and hence . Now let and so that clearly for any since . This shows that is still an upper bound of but that . Since was an arbitrary upper bound of , this proves that can have no least upper bound! □