Exercise 5.2

(a)
Show that if n > 1 there is a bijective correspondence of A1 × × An with (A1 × × An1) × An.

(b)
Given the indexed family {A1,A2,}, let Bi = A2i1 × A2i for each positive integer i. Show that there is a bijective correspondence of A1 × A2 × with B1 × B2 ×

Answers

Lemma 1. If n + is even, then n2 +. If n + is odd, then (n + 1)2 +.

Proof. First, suppose that n + is even. Then by definition n2 is an integer. However, since both n and 12 are positive, it follows from Exercise 4.2 part (h) that n (12) = n2 is positive also so that n2 +.

Now, suppose that n + is odd so that n = 2k + 1 for some integer k by Exercise 4.11a. Then

n + 1 2 = (2k + 1) + 1 2 = 2k + 2 2 = 2(k + 1) 2 = k + 1,

which is clearly an integer since k is. Moreover, we have n + 1 > n > 0 since n + and again 12 > 0 so that (n + 1) (12) = (n + 1)2 is positive by Exercise 4.2 part (h). Thus (n + 1)2 +. □

Main Problem.

(a)

Proof. For brevity, let X = A1 × × An and Y = (A1 × × An1) × An. Suppose that n > 1 so that X and Y make sense. We construct a bijective function f : X Y . For any x = (x1,,xn) X we have that xi Ai for 1 i n. So set f(x) = ( (x1,,xn1) ,xn), which is clearly an element of Y .

To see that f is injective consider x = (x1,,xn) and y = (y1,,yn) in X where xy. It then follows that there must be an i ℤfinn where xiyi. Let x = (x1,,xn1) and y = (y1,,yn1) so that clearly f(x) = (x,xn) and f(y) = (y,yn). Now, if i = n, then clearly f(x) = (x,xn)(y,yn) = f(y) since xn = xiyi = yn. On the other hand, if in then it has to be that i < n, and hence i n 1. It then follows that x = (x1,,xn1) (y1,,yn1) = y so that then f(x) = (x,xn)(y,yn) = f(y) again. Since x and y were arbitrary, this shows that f is indeed injective.

Now consider any y = ( (x1,,xn1) ,xn) Y and let x = (x1,,xn). It should be obvious that both x X and f(x) = y so that f is surjective. Hence f is a bijective function as desired. □

(b)

Proof. First let A = A1 × A2 × and B = B1 × B2 ×. We construct a bijective f : A B. So, for any a A, we have that a = (a1,a2,), where ai Ai for any i +. Then, for any i +, define bi = (a2i1,a2i) so that clearly bi A2i1 × A2i = Bi. We then have that b = (b1,b2,) B1 × B2 × = B. So set f(a) = b so that f is a function from A to B.

To show that f is injective, consider a = (a1,a2,) and a = (a1,a2,) in A where aa. For each i +, define bi = (a2i1,a2i) and bi = (a2i1,a2i) as above and set b = (b1,b2,) and b = (b1,b2,) so that clearly f(a) = b and f(a) = b. Since aa, it follows that there must be an i + where aiai.

Case: i is even. Then let j = i2 so that j + by Lemma 1 . We also clearly have that i = 2j so that bj = (a2j1,a2j)(a2j1,a2j) = bj since a2j = aiai = a2j.

Case: i is odd. Then let j = (i + 1)2 so that j + by Lemma 1 . We then clearly have that i = 2j 1 so that bj = (a2j1,a2j)(a2j1,a2j) = bj since a2j1 = aiai = a2j1.

Hence in all cases, we have that there is a j + where bjbj. It then follows that f(a) = b = (b1,b2,) (b1,b2,) = b = f(a) so that f is injective since a and a were arbitrary.

Lastly, to show that f is surjective, consider any b B so that b = (b1,b2,) where bi Bi = A2i1 × A2i for every i +. Then, for any i +, bi = (ai,ai′′) where ai A2i1 and ai′′ A2i. So consider any j +. If j is even, then i = j2 + by Lemma 1 . Clearly also j = 2i. So, define aj = ai′′ so that aj = a2i = ai′′ A2i = Aj. On the other hand, if j is odd, then i = (j + 1)2 + again by Lemma 1 . Then clearly j = 2i 1. So, here let aj = ai so that aj = a2i1 = ai A2i1 = Aj. Hence aj Aj for all j + so that a = (a1,a2,) A. Then, for any i +, we have bi = (ai,ai′′) = (a2i1,a2i) A2i1 × A2i = Bi so that by definition f(a) = b = (b1,b2,). This shows that f is surjective since b was arbitrary.

This completes the proof that f is bijective so that the desired result follows. □

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2019-12-01 00:00
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