Exercise 71.5

Let Sn be the circle of radius n in 2 whose center is at the point (n,0). Let Y be the subspace of 2 that is the union of these circles; let p be their common point.

(a)
Show that Y is not homeomorphic to a countably infinite wedge X of circles, nor to the space of Example 1.
(b)
Show, however, that π1(Y,p) is a free group with {[fn]} as a system of free generators, where fn is a loop representing a generator of π1(Sn,p).

Answers

Proof of (a). Y is a subspace of 2 and so it is first countable by Theorem 30.2, and so Y is not homeomorphic to X by Exercise , which says X is not first countable.

Denote Z as the space of Example 71.1; we claim Z is compact while Y is not. First, denoting Dm as the closed disc of radius 1m with center at the point (1m,0), we see that Z Dm is closed since it is a finite union of closed sets Z Dm = Dm n<mCn. Then, Z m(Z Dm) trivially; moreover, since if xZ, then xDm for all m large enough, we have that Z = m(Z Dm). Thus, Z is closed. Since Z is bounded, it is then compact by Theorem 27.3. On the other hand, Y is unbounded hence not compact by Theorem 27.3, and so Y,Z are not homeomorphic. □

Proof of (b). Let in: π1(Sn,p) π1(Y,p) be the homomorphism induced by inclusion, and let their respective images be Gn; we want to show that the homomorphism

n=1π 1(Sn,p) π1(Y,p), j=1J[f mj]j j=1Ji n([fmj])j
(1)

is an isomorphism.

We first show that the homomorphism (1) is surjective. So, suppose f : I Y is a loop in Y . Letting Y N = Y n=N+1{(2n,0)}, since I is compact, the image f(I) is also compact, thus bounded by Theorem 27.3, and so f(I) Y N for some N. Letting rN: Y n=1NSn, we form the deformation retraction H : Y N × I Y N, where H(x,0) = id Y N and H(x,1) = rN|Y N, by retracting the upper and lower semicircles of Sn to p for all n > N. Then, H (f × id I): I × I Y N is a path homotopy from f to rN f. Thus, [f] = [rN f], and Theorem 71.1 implies that [rN f] is a product of elements of the groups Gn for n N. Therefore, [f] is in the image of the homomorphism (1).

We now show that the homomorphism (1) is injective. Now suppose there is some non-identity element

w n=1π 1(Sn,p),

whose image through the homomorphism (1) is the identity in π1(Y,p). Let f be a loop in X whose path-homotopy class is the image of w. Then, f is path homotopic to a constant in X, so by the argument above, it is path homotopic to a constant in some Y N, and therefore path homotopic to a constant in n=1NSn. But this contradicts Theorem 71.1, which says that the map

n=1Nπ 1(Sn,p) π1 ( n=1NS n,p)

is injective. □

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2021-12-21 20:33
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