Exercise 10.2

In section 1 it was asserted that H , the hyperplane at infinity in P n ( F ) , has the structure of P n 1 ( F ) . Verify this by constructing a one-to-one, onto map from P n 1 ( F ) to H .

Answers

Proof. Note that if one representative ( x 0 , , x n ) of a projective point satisfies x 0 = 0 , then it is the same for all representatives of this point, so we can define

H ¯ = { [ x 0 , , x n ] P n ( F ) x 0 = 0 } ,

where we write for simplicity [ x 0 , , x n ] for [ ( x 0 , , x n ) ] .

Consider

ψ { H ¯ P n 1 ( F ) [ 0 , x 1 , , x n ] [ x 1 , , x n ]

Then ψ is well-defined. Indeed, if ( 0 , x 1 , , x n ) ( 0 , y 1 , , y n ) , then there is some λ F such that ( 0 , y 1 , , y n ) = λ ( 0 , x 1 , , x n ) , thus ( y 1 , , y n ) = λ ( x 1 , , x n ) , and [ x 1 , , x n ] = [ y 1 , , y n ] .

If ψ ( [ 0 , x 1 , , x n ] ) = ψ ( [ 0 , y 1 , , y n ] ) , then [ ( x 1 , , x n ) ] = [ ( y 1 , , y n ) ] , so there is some λ F such that y i = λ x i , i = 1 , , n . Since 0 = λ 0 , ( 0 , y 1 , , y n ) ( 0 , x 1 , , x n ) , therefore [ 0 , x 1 , , x n ] = [ 0 , y 1 , , y n ] , so ψ is injective.

Moreover if [ x 1 , , x n ] is any projective point of P n 1 ( F ) , then [ x 1 , , x n ] = ψ ( [ 0 , x 1 , , x n ] ) so ψ is surjective.

To conclude, ψ is a bijection. □

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2022-07-19 00:00
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