Exercise 5.4

Prove that a = 1 p 1 ( a p ) = 0 .

Answers

Proof. Here p is an odd prime (the result is false if p = 2 ). In the interval [ 1 , p 1 ] , there exist ( p 1 ) 2 residues, and ( p 1 ) 2 nonresidues (Prop. 5.1.2., Corollary 1), so a = 1 p 1 ( a p ) = 0 . □

Proof. As an alternative proof, let S = a = 1 p 1 ( a p ) , and b a nonresidue modulo p : ( b p ) = 1 (such a b exists if p 2 ). As a ab is a bijection from 𝔽 p to itself,

( b p ) S = a = 1 p 1 ( ab p ) = c = 1 p 1 ( c p ) = S ,

so S = S , S = 0 . □

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2022-07-19 00:00
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