Exercise 6.22

Show that the relation 𝜀 1 ( mod p ) in Proposition 6.4.4 can also be achieved by replacing x by 1 + t instead of e z .

Answers

Proof. (solution given by Mikomikon and A.Grounds (agrounds))

We know from the remark after Prop 6.4.3 that

g ( χ ) = 𝜀 k = 1 ( p 1 ) 2 ( ζ 2 k 1 ζ ( 2 k 1 ) ) ,

where 𝜀 = ± 1 . Let

f ( x ) = j = 1 p 1 χ ( j ) x j 𝜀 k = 1 ( p 1 ) 2 ( x 2 k 1 x p ( 2 k 1 ) ) .

Then f ( 0 ) = 0 and f ( ζ ) = 0 , therefore ( x p 1 ) divides f ( x ) . As f ( x ) [ x ] and x p 1 [ x ] is monic, f ( x ) = ( x p 1 ) h ( x ) , h ( x ) [ x ] . If we replace x by 1 + t , we obtain

f ( 1 + t ) = j = 1 p 1 χ ( j ) ( 1 + t ) j 𝜀 k = 1 ( p 1 ) 2 ( ( 1 + t ) 2 k 1 ( 1 + t ) p ( 2 k 1 ) ) .

We compute the coefficient of t ( p 1 ) 2 in the polynomial f ( 1 + t ) :

j = 1 p 1 χ ( j ) ( 1 + t ) j = j = 1 p 1 χ ( j ) i = 1 j ( j i ) t i = i = 1 p 1 j = i p 1 χ ( j ) ( j i ) t i

Thus the coefficient of t ( p 1 ) 2 in j = 1 p 1 χ ( j ) ( 1 + t ) j is j = ( p 1 ) 2 p 1 χ ( j ) ( j ( p 1 ) 2 ) .

k = 1 ( p 1 ) 2 ( ( 1 + t ) 2 k 1 ( 1 + t ) p ( 2 k 1 ) ) = k = 1 ( p 1 ) 2 ( ( 1 + ( 2 k 1 ) t ) ( 1 + ( p ( 2 k 1 ) ) t + t 2 u ( t ) ) = k = 1 ( p 1 ) 2 ( ( 4 k 2 p ) t + t 2 v ( t ) ) = t ( p 1 ) 2 ( k = 1 ( p 1 ) 2 ( 4 k 2 p ) ) + t ( p + 1 ) 2 w ( t ) ,

where u ( t ) , v ( t ) , w ( t ) are polynomials. So the coefficient of t ( p 1 ) 2 in f ( 1 + t ) is

c ( p 1 ) 2 = j = ( p 1 ) 2 p 1 χ ( j ) ( j ( p 1 ) 2 ) 𝜀 k = 1 ( p 1 ) 2 ( 4 k 2 p ) .

Furthermore,

f ( 1 + t ) = ( ( 1 + t ) p 1 ) h ( 1 + t ) = [ i = 1 p ( p i ) t i ] h ( 1 + t ) = [ i = 1 p i ! ( p i ) t i i ! ] h ( 1 + t ) = [ i = 0 p a i t i i ! ] h ( 1 + t ) ,

where a 0 = 0 , a i = i ! ( p i ) = p ! ( p i ) ! , so p a i , i = 0 , , p 1 : the conditions of Ex.21 are verified, so f ( 1 + t ) = i = 0 p 1 c i t i is such that c ( p 1 ) 2 = p ( A B ) , p B . Equating these two evaluations of c ( p 1 ) 2 , we obtain

j = ( p 1 ) 2 p 1 χ ( j ) ( j ( p 1 ) 2 ) 𝜀 k = 1 ( p 1 ) 2 ( 4 k 2 p ) = p A B , p B .

Multiplying by B ( p 1 ) ! 2 , we obtain, as p B ,

( p 1 ) ! 2 j = ( p 1 ) 2 p 1 χ ( j ) ( j ( p 1 ) 2 ) 𝜀 ( p 1 ) ! 2 k = 1 ( p 1 ) 2 ( 4 k 2 ) 𝜀 ( 2 4 6 ( p 1 ) ) k = 1 ( p 1 ) 2 ( 2 k 1 ) 𝜀 ( p 1 ) ! 𝜀 ( mod p )

To prove that 𝜀 = + 1 , it remains to prove

S : = ( ( p 1 ) 2 ) ! j = ( p 1 ) 2 p 1 χ ( j ) ( j ( p 1 ) 2 ) 1 ( mod p )

The factor of ( ( p 1 ) 2 ) ! cancels the denominator of ( j ( p 1 ) 2 ) , which leaves

S = j = ( p 1 ) 2 p 1 χ ( j ) j ( j 1 ) ( j p 1 2 + 1 ) = j = 1 p 1 χ ( j ) j ( j 1 ) ( j p 1 2 + 1 ) .

The last equality is justified because all terms for j < p 1 2 are zero. Collecting powers of j , this is

S = j = 1 p 1 k = 0 ( p 1 ) 2 χ ( j ) a k j k k = 0 ( p 1 ) 2 a k j = 1 p 1 j k + p 1 2 ( mod p )

for some integers a k . It’s important to note that a ( p 1 ) 2 = 1 .

Now, we compute j = 1 p 1 j n mod p . Let T denote this sum and let g be a generator of p × . Then, for all positive integer n ,

g n T = j = 1 p 1 ( gj ) n k = 1 p 1 k n = T ( mod p ) .

Congruence holds because gj also runs over a complete system of nonzero residues mod p . If g n 1 , that is if p 1 n , then T 0 ( mod p ) . If g n 1 , then j n 1 for all j , hence T p 1 1 ( mod p ) .

Returning to the previous sum, the only nonzero term modulo p is k = p 1 2 , so

S k = 0 ( p 1 ) 2 a k j = 1 p 1 j k + p 1 2 a ( p 1 ) 2 ( 1 ) = 1 ( mod p )

as desired. □

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2022-07-19 00:00
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