Exercise 8.A.13

Answers

Proof. It is easy when 𝔽 = , because then V has a basis consisting of eigenvectors of N and for each vector v in this basis we have 0 = Ndim V v = λdim V v for the corresponding eigenvalue λ, which implies that λ = 0.

More generally, without restricting 𝔽 to , we will prove Ndim V 1 = 0 and this fact can be used to show Ndim V 2 = 0, which then can be used to show... and so on until N1.

Let N = Ndim V 1. Note that N is also normal and that N2 = 0. Then, for all v V ,

||NNv||2 = ||NNv|| = 0,

where the first equality comes from 7.20. Thus NN = 0. Therefore

||Nv||2 = Nv,Nv = v,NNv = 0,

which shows that N = 0. □

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2017-10-06 00:00
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