Exercise 5.2.8

Review the definition of uniform continuity (Definition 4.4.4). Given a differentiable function f : A R , let’s say that f is uniformly differentiable on A if, given 𝜖 > 0 there exists a δ > 0 such that

| f ( x ) f ( y ) x y f ( y ) | < 𝜖  whenever  0 < | x y | < δ .

(a)
Is f ( x ) = x 2 uniformly differentiable on R ? How about g ( x ) = x 3 ?
(b)
Show that if a function is uniformly differentiable on an interval A , then the derivative must be continuous on A .
(c)
Is there a theorem analogous to Theorem 4.4.7 for differentiation? Are functions that are differentiable on a closed interval [ a , b ] necessarily uniformly differentiable?

Answers

(a)
We have | x 2 y 2 x y 2 y | = | ( x + y ) 2 y | = | x y | < δ

Thus δ = 𝜖 suffices to show x 2 is uniformly differentiable. Now for x 3

| x 3 y 3 x y 3 y 2 | = | ( x y ) ( x 2 + xy + y 2 ) x y 3 y 2 | = | x 2 + xy 2 y 2 |

Let y = ( x + h ) to get

| x 2 + x ( x + h ) 2 ( x + h ) 2 | = | x 2 + x 2 xh 2 x 2 4 xh 2 h 2 | = | 3 xh + 2 h 2 |

Fix 0 < h < δ , since x can be as big as we want we can make | 3 xh + 2 h 2 | > 𝜖 . As no fixed δ works x 3 is not uniformly differentiable.

(b)
We need to show that lim x y f ( x ) = f ( y ) . Now, if we choose δ small enough such that when | x y | < δ , both
| f ( x ) f ( x ) f ( y ) x y | < 𝜖 2

and

| f ( x ) f ( y ) x y f ( y ) | < 𝜖 2

(this is possible because f is uniformly differentiable), then we have

f ( x ) f ( y ) = f ( x ) f ( x ) f ( y ) x y + f ( x ) f ( y ) x y f ( y ) | f ( x ) f ( x ) f ( y ) x y | + | f ( x ) f ( y ) x y f ( y ) | < 𝜖

as desired.

(c)
Consider the counterexample f ( x ) = x 2 sin ( 1 x ) over [ 0 , 1 ] (where f ( 0 ) = 0 ). f is differentiable over [ 0 , 1 ] but not uniformly differentiable.

Intuitively this is because I can find x n , y n such that the slope between them becomes unbounded, but the derivative f must stay bounded. To be exact set

x n = 1 2 πn + π 2 , y n = 1 2 πn

then

| f ( x n ) f ( y n ) x n y n f ( x n ) | = | 1 x n y n f ( x n ) | = | ( 2 πn ) ( 2 πn + π 2 ) π 2 f ( x n ) | = | 4 n ( 2 πn + π 2 ) f ( x n ) |

Now since f ( x n ) = 2 x sin ( 1 x ) cos ( 1 x ) is bounded I can defeat any δ by picking n large enough so that

| x n y n | < δ and | f ( x n ) f ( y n ) x n y n f ( x n ) | 𝜖

Thus f is not uniformly differentiable.

If you try to apply the same proof as for uniform continuity you get stuck at the triangle inequality.

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2022-01-27 00:00
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