Exercise 6.2.9

Assume ( f n ) and ( g n ) are uniformly convergent sequences of functions.

(a)
Show that ( f n + g n ) is a uniformly convergent sequence of functions.
(b)
Give an example to show that the product ( f n g n ) may not converge uniformly.
(c)
Prove that if there exists an M > 0 such that | f n | M and | g n | M for all n N , then ( f n g n ) does converge uniformly.

Answers

(a)
Obvious by the triangle inequality and Cauchy Criterion
(b)
Let f n ( x ) = x = f ( x ) and g n ( x ) = x + 1 n . Suppose n , m N for some N , Cauchy gives us | f n g n f m g m | = | x ( 1 n 1 m ) |

Making x large makes the error blow up regardless of how big N is, thus f n g n does not converge uniformly.

(c)
By the triangle inequality (same trick as for the product rule) | f n g n f m g m | | f n g n f n g m | + | f n g m f m g m | = | f n | | g n g m | + | g m | | f n f m | < M | g n g m | + M | f n f m | < 𝜖 2 + 𝜖 2 = 𝜖

After setting N big enough that n , m N implies | f n f m | < M 2 𝜖 and | g n g m | < M 2 𝜖 .

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2022-01-27 00:00
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