Exercise 2.4.1

Answers

1.
No. It should be ([T]αβ)1 = [T1]βα.
2.
Yes. See Appendix B.
3.
No. LA can only map 𝔽n to 𝔽m.
4.
No. It isomorphic to 𝔽5.
5.
Yes. This is because Pn(𝔽)𝔽n.
6.
No. We have that ( 100 0 1 0 ) ( 10 0 1 00 ) = I but A and B are not invertible since they are not square.
7.
Yes. Since we have both A and (A1)1 are the inverse of A1, by the uniqueness of inverse we can conclude that they are the same.
8.
Yes. We have that LA1 would be the inverse of LA.
9.
Yes. This is the definition.
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2011-06-27 00:00
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