Exercise 2.6.10

Answers

1.
Since we can check that fi(p(x) + cq(x)) = p(ci) + cq(ci) = fi(p(x)) + cfi(q(x)), fi is linear and hence in V . And we know that dim(V ) = dim(V ) = dim(Pn(𝔽)) = n + 1. So now it’s enough to show that {f0,f1,,fn} is independent. So assume that i=1naifi = 0 for some ai. We may define polynomials pi(x) = ji(x cj) such that we know pi(ci)0 but pi(cj) = 0 for all ji. So now we have that
i=1na ifi(p1) = a1f1(p1) = 0

implies a1 = 0. Similarly we have ai = 0 for all proper i.

2.
By the Corollary after Theorem 2.26 we have an ordered basis
β = {p0,p1,,pn}

for V such that {f1,f2,,fn} defined in the previous exercise is its dual basis. So we know that pi(cj) = δij. Since β is a basis, every polynomial in V is linear combination of β. If a polynomial q has the property that q(cj) = δ0j, we can assume that q = i=0naipi. Then we have

1 = q(c0) = i=0na ipi(c0) = a1

and

0 = q(cj) = i=0na ipi(cj) = aj

for all j other than 1. So actually we know q = p0. This means p0 is unique. And similarly we know all pi is unique. Since the Lagrange polynomials,say {ri}i=1,2,n, defined in Section 1.6 satisfy the property ri(cj) = δij, by uniqueness we have ri = pi for all i.

3.
Let β = {p0,p1,,pn} be those polynomials defined above. We may check that
q(x) = i=0na ipi(x)

has the property q(ci) = ai for all i, since we know that pi(cj) = δij. Next if r(x) V also has the property, we may assume that

r(x) = i=0nb ipi(x)

since β is a basis for V . Similarly we have that

ai = r(ci) = i=0nb ipi(ci) = bi.

So we know r = q and q is unique.

4.
This is the instant result of 2.6.10(a) and 2.6.10(b) by setting ai = p(ci).
5.
Since there are only finite term in that summation, we have that the order of integration and summation can be changed. So we know
abp(t)dt =ab( i=0np(c i)pi(t))dt
= i=0nabp(c i)pi(t)dt.
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2011-06-27 00:00
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