Exercise 6.8.26

Answers

Use the Corollary 2 after Theorem 6.38. Let $p$ , $q$ be the number of positive and negative eigenvalues respectly. Then we have

p + q \leq n .

Hence we have

(\binom{3 + n - 1}{n}) = (\binom{n + 2}{2}) = \frac{(n + 2) (n + 1)}{2}

possibilities.

jephianlin

2011-06-27 00:00