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Exercise 1.4.18 (Borel measurable sets and Cartesian products II)
- (i)
- Let be a Borel measurable subset of . Show that for any , the slice is a Borel measurable subset of .
- (ii)
- Give a counterexample to show that this claim is not true if "Borel" is replaced with "Lebesgue" throughout.
Answers
First notice that the statement holds for closed sets . Let . Then any convergent sequence converges in . In particular, its part converges in . But any convergent sequence in can be expressed as a part of a convergent sequence in ; thus, must be closed too. In particular, it is Borel measurable. Thus, holds for any . Following Remark 1.4.15 we now demonstrate that is a -property.
- (i)
- For we have is Borel measurable.
- (ii)
- Suppose that
is true, i.e.,
is Borel measurable. We then have
and the latter is Borel measurable by axiom 2.
- (iii)
- Suppose that
is such that
is true. We must demonstrate that
is true.
This must be Borel measurable by the closure under countable unions property.
Thus, holds for all .
Now recall from Lemma 1.2.13 that every null set is Lebesgue measurable. In particular, , where is the Vitali set, is a null set. Thus, although the product is Lebesgue measurable, any slice of this set is not Lebesgue measurable in .