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Exercise 1.4.24 (Dominated convergence theorem for measurable sets)
Let be a measure space. Let be a sequence of -measurable sets that converge to another set (i.e., ).
- (i)
- Show that is also -measurable
- (ii)
- If there exists a -measurable set of finite measure which contains all of the , then .
Answers
- (i)
-
To show that
is measurable, we argue that due to the pointwise convergence
can be represented as a limit inferior (or limit superior) of
, i.e., as a countable union/intersection of the measurable sets:
We shortly verify the first equality. Pick an arbitrary . Then there exists a such that for all we have (just set ). In other words, for all . Thus, and is contained in the left-hand side. Now pick an arbitrary , i.e., for some we have . If we had , then there would exist such that - a contradiction. The second equality follows in the similar manner.
- (ii)
-
Notice that by measurability of
we can use finite additivity to see that both
and
holds. Thus,
Since , by the downwards version of Exercise 1.4.23, we have
We now argue that the last term is an empty set.
From this, the assertion follows.