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Exercise 1.4.46 (Generalised dominated convergence theorem)
Let be a measure space, and let be a sequence of measurable functions from to that converge pointwise -almost everywhere to a measurable limit . Suppose that there is an unsigned absolutely integrable function , from to such that the are pointwise -almost everywhere bounded by , and that . Show that
Answers
Without the loss of generality we make the following assumptions:
- By modifying and on a null set, we may assume without loss of generality that converge to pointwise everywhere.
- Similarly, we may assume that are bounded by everywhere.
- Since we can always split the complex integral into the real and the imaginary part, we only look at the case where are real. The assertion for the complex valued integrals then follows easily by additivity.
Since we conclude .
We now demonstrate both sides of inequality
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From , i.e., from we see that the function is non-negative. This allows us to apply Fatou’s lemma (Corollary 1.4.46) and conclude
or, in other words,
Removing the vanishing integral of and subtracting the finite quantity from both sides we obtain the desired result
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Similarly, from , i.e., from we see that the function is non-negative. Applying Fatou’s lemma, we get
or, in other words,
Removing the vanishing integral of and subtracting the finite quantity from both sides and negating the inequality we obtain
as desired.
Comments
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This solution cannot be correct. Integral converging to zero does not implies that the function converges to zero pointwise, nor does it imply a.e. convergence to 0 pointwise. Consider the typewriter functionBOB • 2022-12-30