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Exercise 1.5.9 (Dominated convergence in measure)

Let (X,ℬ,μ) be a measure space, and let (f )n∈ℕ be a dominated sequence of measurable functions from X to ℂ; let f : X → ℂ be another measurable function. Show that (f )n∈ℕ converges to f in L1 norm if and only if (f )n∈ℕ converges to f in measure.

Answers

Consider the sequence of sets

∀ ⁡k ∈ ℕ : Ak := {x ∈ X : g ≥ 1 k }

and the resulting set

A := ⋃ k∈ℕAk = {x ∈ X : g≠0}andX∖A ⊆⋂ n∈ℕ{x ∈ X : fn(x) = 0}∩{x ∈ X : f(x) = 0}.

We then have for each k ∈ ℕ,

|fn − f| ≤∫ X∖Ak|fn|+|f|dμ+∫ Ak|fn−f|dμ ≤ 2∫ X∖Ak|g|dμ+∫ Ak|fn−f|dμ.

Suppose for the sake of contradiction that ∥fn − f∥L1 doesn’t converge to 0. Then we can find a δ > 0 and (by axiom of choice) a subsequence (fnj)j∈ℕ such that ∥fn′− f∥L1 ≥ 2δ. We fix k such that 2∫ X∖Ak|g(x)|dμ(x) ≤ δ (such a k exists by the dominated convergence theorem, since lim ⁡ k→∞∫ ⁡ X∖Ak|g|dμ = ∫ ⁡ X∖A|g|dμ ). Then

δ ≤∫ Ak|fnj − f|dμ.

Now, as Ak has a finite measure, we can extract a subsequence (fnj i)i∈ℕ of (fnj)n∈ℕ which converges almost everywhere on Ak. Applying the classical dominated convergence theorem to this sequence, we get a contradiction.

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2020-11-01 00:00
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