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Exercise 1.5.9 (Dominated convergence in measure)

Let (X,,μ) be a measure space, and let (f )n be a dominated sequence of measurable functions from X to ; let f : X be another measurable function. Show that (f )n converges to f in L1 norm if and only if (f )n converges to f in measure.

Answers

Consider the sequence of sets

k : Ak := {x X : g 1 k }

and the resulting set

A := kAk = {x X : g0}andXA n{x X : fn(x) = 0}{x X : f(x) = 0}.

We then have for each k ,

|fn f| XAk|fn|+|f|dμ+Ak|fnf|dμ 2XAk|g|dμ+Ak|fnf|dμ.

Suppose for the sake of contradiction that fn fL1 doesn’t converge to 0. Then we can find a δ > 0 and (by axiom of choice) a subsequence (fnj)j such that fn fL1 2δ. We fix k such that 2 XAk|g(x)|dμ(x) δ (such a k exists by the dominated convergence theorem, since lim k XAk|g|dμ = XA|g|dμ ). Then

δ Ak|fnj f|dμ.

Now, as Ak has a finite measure, we can extract a subsequence (fnj i)i of (fnj)n which converges almost everywhere on Ak. Applying the classical dominated convergence theorem to this sequence, we get a contradiction.

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2020-11-01 00:00
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