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Exercise 1.7.21 (Associativity of product of measure spaces)
Let , , be -finite sets. We may identify the Cartesian products and with each other in the obvious manner. If we do so, show that and .
Answers
We must demonstrate that
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| (1) |
We use the usual trick of demonstrating that the set on the left-hand side is both the subset and the superset of the set on the right-hand side.
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The trick is to rewrite the theorem assertion as:
This formulation gives us a new attack angle; namely, denoting
we can restrict ourselves only to the sets contained in the generating set instead of the whole -algebra by employing the famous measurable induction principle. We verify its assumptions.
- (i)
- For any we have as the latter set is a -algebra and must therefore contain the empty set.
- (ii)
- Suppose that
for any . Fix
. Since the product
set is a -algebra,
it must also contain the complement, which by inductive version of
Exercise 3.5.5 of Analysis I is equal to
Furthermore, is generated by ; thus, both the sets and are contained in . We conclude, by associativity of the Cartesian product (Example 3.5.9 of Analysis I), that
- (iii)
- Let be such
that for all
we have .
Then, by the analogous property of the Cartesian product, the countable
union can be expressed as
as the latter is a -algebra.
Finally, we verify whether this property is true for all , i.e,
The above is obviously true, since any set of the form for can be expressed as by associativity of the Cartesian product, and it is therefore contained in -algebra generated by the set .
- The second direction follows completely symmetrically to the previous part, so we do not provide its proof here.
Comments
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You didn't show that the product measure is associative on the product algebra.isn • 2025-09-17