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Exercise 1.3 (Well-definedness of simple integral)

Suppose that an unsigned simple function f has two representations as the linear combination of indicator functions:

f = ∑ i=1na i1Ei = ∑ j=1mb j1Fj

where n,m ∈ ℕ, ai,bj lie in [0,+∞], and Ei,Ej are measurable sets. Show that

∑ i=1na iμ (Ei) = ∑ j=1mb jμ (Fj)

Answers

We use a Venn diagram argument.

Lemma 1. (Venn diagram argument) Let E1,…,En ⊆Ω be sets. Then they partition ℝd into 2n disjoint sets, each of which is an intersection of Ei or the complement Ω ∖ Ei for i = 1,…,n.

Proof. We use induction.

  • For the case n = 2 we have the collection of 22 = 4 sets:

    I2 = {E1 ∩ E2,E1c ∩ E 2,E1 ∩ E2c,E 1c ∩ E 2c} .

    It is easy to verify that all of the above sets are pairwise disjoint and their union is Ω indeed.

  • Now suppose inductively that the theorem assertion is true for n ∈ ℕ, i.e, we have the set In of cardinality 2n consisting of all intersection of E1,E1c,…,En,Enc. Then it is easy to verify that the set In+1 can be written as

    In+1 = {A ∩ B : A ∈ In and B = En+1,En+1c} .

    The elements of In+1 are disjoint since the elements of In are, and it is a partition of Ω of cardinality 2n+1, as desired.

□

Thus, consider the k + k′ disjoint sets of the collection In+m constructed as above. We throw away any sets that are empty, leaving us with a partition of Ω into k non-empty disjoint sets A1,…,Ak for some 0 ≤ k ≤ 2n+m. As the E1,…,En,F1,…,Fm and their complements are measurable, the A1,…,Ak are too. By construction, each of the E1,…,En,F1,…,Fm arise as unions of some of the A1,…,Ak, thus we can write

Ei = ⋃ j∈JiAj,Fi′ = ⋃ j′∈Ji′′Aj′

for all i = 1,…,n and i′ = 1,…,m, and some subsets Ji,Ji′′⊆{1,…,k}. By finite additivity of measure, we thus have

m(Ei) = ∑ j∈Jim(Aj)m(Fi′) = ∑ j∈Ji′′m(Aj).

Thus, our objective is now to show that

∑ i=1na im(Ei) = ∑ i=1na i ∑ i∈Jim(Aj)=!∑ i′=1nb i′∑ j∈Ji′′m(Aj) = ∑ i′=1nb i′m(Fi′).

To obtain this, we fix 1 ≤ j ≤ k and evaluate a11E1 + … + an1En = b1F1 + … + bm1Fm. At such point, 1Ei(x) is equal to 1Ji(j), and similarly 1Fi′ is equal to 1Ji′′(j). From this, we conclude that

∑ i=1na i1Ji(j) = ∑ i′=1nb i′1Ji′′(j).

Multiplying this by m(Aj) and then summing over all j = 1,…,m we obtain the theorem assertion.

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2021-08-09 00:00
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