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Exercise 2.3.5 (Homomorphic inverse)

Let ϕ : K L be a homomorphism of fields and let 0a K. Prove that ϕ(a1) = ϕ(a)1. Why is ϕ(a)1 defined?

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Solution: Since K is a field, and the fact that 0a K, we have that a is a unit, aa1 = 1, and a1 K. By Lemma 2.3.3, we have that ϕ : K L is injective. Hence, ϕ(a)ϕ(a1) = ϕ(a a1) = ϕ(1) = 1, and ϕ(a1)ϕ(a) = ϕ(a1 a) = ϕ(1) = 1. Therefore we have that ϕ(a1) is both a left and right inverse of a and hence it is the only inverse of a. Therefore, by injectivity ϕ(a1) = ϕ(a)1.

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2022-11-04 02:38
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