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Exercise 6.1.5 (Properties of induced homomorphism)

Show that if a ring homomorphism ψ is injective then so is ψ, and if ψ is an isomorphism then so is ψ.

Answers

Solution: We have that ψ : R S and ψ : R[t] S[t]. Since ψ is injective we that x,y R if ψ(x) = ψ(y)x = y. Then we choose f,f R[t] and assume that ψf = ψf. From Definition 3.1.7 we then have that:

ψf = ψf ψ ( iaiti) = ψ ( ibiti) iψ(ai)ti = iψ(bi)ti ψ(ai) = ψ(bi) ai = bi

Hence we have that f = iaiti = f. Hence ψ is injective.

If ψ is an isomorphism then ψ is both surjective and injective. We have just shown that ψ is injective, so we show that it is also surjective to prove it is an isomorphism. We know that ϕ is surjective s S[t]r R[t] : ψr = s. We choose s S[t] and let e be the identity homomorphism. Then we have:

s = es = (ψψ1)s = ψ(ψ1s) = ψ (ψ1 ( iaiti)) = ψ ( iψ1(a i)ti) = ψr

where ψ1(ai) R exists since ψ is an isomorphism, and r = iψ1(ai)ti R[t]. Hence ψ is also surjective, hence it is an isomorphism.

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HN
2022-11-10 20:46
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  • You cannot use $\psi_*^{-1}$ before the end of the proof that $\psi_*$ is surjective.
    richardganaye2024-06-02

Proof. Let ψ : K K be a homomorphism, and

ψ { K [ t ] K [ t ] i = 0 d a i t i i = 0 d ψ ( a i ) t i .

the induced homomorphism.

  • Assume that ψ is injective. Let p = i = 0 d a i t i ker ( ψ ) . Then i = 0 d ψ ( a i ) t i = 0 , therefore ψ ( a i ) = 0 ( 0 i d ) . Since ψ is an injective homomorphim, a i = 0 , so p = 0 . Since ker ( ψ ) = { 0 } , ψ is injective.
  • Assume that ψ is surjective. Let q ( t ) = i = 0 d b i t i be any polynomial in K [ t ] . Since ψ is surjective, there are elements a i K for each i = 0 , , d such that b i = ψ ( a i ) Therefore

    q ( t ) = i = 0 d b i t i = i = 0 d ψ ( a i ) t i = ψ ( i = 0 d a i t i ) .

    Thus, if p ( t ) = i = 0 d a i t i , then q = ψ ( p ) . This proves that ψ is surjective.

To conclude, if ψ is an isomorphism, so is ψ . □

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2024-06-02 07:06
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