Exercise 1.5

Consider the definition of “bounded set” given in Section 1.6. Would the content of this definition be altered if it were required merely required that to every neighbourhood V of 0 corresponds some t > 0 such that E tV ?

Answers

Proof. The answer is: No. To prove it, start from (a) of Section 1.14: V contains W , a balanced neighbourhood of 0 . Assume that E is bounded in this weaker sense, i.e. there exists a positive t that satisfies

E tW . (1)

Thus,

E tW sW sV ( s > t ) , (2)

since W is balanced. We so reach the definition given in Section 1.6: The two ones are equivalent. □

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2023-08-23 12:04
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