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Exercise 3.11
Let be an infinite-dimensional Fréchet space. Prove that , with its topology, is of the first category in itself.
Answers
This is actually a consequence of the below lemma, which we prove first. The proof that is of the first category in itself comes right after, as a corollary.
Lemma. If is an infinite dimensional topological vector space whose dual separates points on , then the polar
of any absorbing subset is a closed set that has empty interior.
Proof. Let
range over
. The linear form
is
continuous; see 3.14. Therefore,
is
closed: As the intersection of
,
is also a
closed set. We now prove the second half of the statement.
From now on,
is assumed to be endowed with its weak topology:
is then locally convex, but its dual space is still
(see 3.11). Put
where runs on , as runs through the nonempty finite subsets of . Clearly, the collection of all such is a local base of . Pick one of those and remark that the following subspace
is finite dimensional. Assume, to reach a contradiction, that . So, every lies in for some , since is absorbing. As a consequence, is finite dimensional, which is a desired contradiction. We have just established that : Now pick in and so conclude that
Remark that (otherwise, would hold) and that is closed (see 1.21 (b)): By the Hahn-Banach theorem 3.5, there exists in such that
and
The latter equality implies that vanishes on ; hence is an element of . On the other hand, given an arbitrary , the following inequalities
show that is not in . We have thus proved that
Since and are both arbitrary, this achieves the proof. □
We now give a proof of the original statement.
Corollary. If is an infinite-dimensional Fréchet space, then is meager in itself.
Proof. From now on, is only endowed with its topology. Let be an invariant distance that is compatible with the topology of , so that the following sets
form a local base of . If is in , then
for some ; see 1.18. Hence, is the countable union of all
where is the polar of . Clearly, showing that every is nowhere dense is now sufficient. To do so, we use the fact that separates points; see 3.4. As a consequence, the above lemma implies
Since the multiplication by is an homeomorphism (see 1.7), this is equivalent to
So ends the proof. □