Exercise 1.6

Exercise 6: Fix b > 1 .

  • If m , n , p , q are integers, n > 0 , q > 0 , and r = m n = p q , prove that

    ( b m ) 1 n = ( b p ) 1 q .

  • Prove that b r + s = b r b s if r and s are rational.
  • If x is real, define B ( x ) to be the set of all numbers b t , where t is rational and t x . Prove that

    b r = sup B ( r )

    when r is rational. Hence it makes sense to define

    b x = sup B ( x )

    for every real x .

  • Prove that b x + y = b x b y for all real x and y .

Answers

(a): Since np = qm ,

( ( b p ) 1 q ) np = ( ( b p ) 1 q ) qm = b mp .

Hence by Theorem 1.21,

( ( b p ) 1 q ) n = b m .

A second application of Theorem 1.21 gives us

( b p ) 1 q = ( b m ) 1 n .

(b): Let r = m n , s = p q .

( b r b s ) nq = ( ( b m ) 1 n ( b p ) 1 q ) nq = b mq b np ( b r + s ) nq = ( ( b mq + np ) 1 nq ) nq = b mq b np

Hence by Theorem 1.21, b r b s = b r + s .

(c): Note that the positive rational powers of b are greater than 1 since the positive integral powers and roots of real numbers greater than 1 are also greater than 1. Hence if t < r ,

b t < b t b r t = b t + r t = b r .

Hence, since b r B ( r ) , we have b r = sup B ( r ) .

(d): We need to show that sup B ( x + y ) = sup B ( x ) sup B ( y ) . If S and T are sets of positive real numbers, it isn’t hard to show that sup ST = sup S sup T , where ST is the set of products of elements of S with elements of T . Hence we want to show that sup B ( x + y ) = sup ( B ( x ) B ( y ) ) .

Let p , q be rational numbers such that p x and q y . Then b p b q = b p + q sup B ( x + y ) , so sup ( B ( x ) B ( y ) ) sup B ( x + y ) .

To get the reverse inequality, let t be any rational number such that t < x + y , and let 𝜖 > 0 such that t < x + y 𝜖 . By Theorem 1.20(b), there are rational numbers p x , and q y such that x 𝜖 2 < p and y 𝜖 2 < q . Then t < x + y 𝜖 < p + q so that b t < b p + q = b p b q sup B ( x ) B ( y ) . Hence sup B ( x + y ) sup ( B ( x ) B ( y ) ) . (thanks to Matt Lundy for pointing out errors)

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2023-08-07 00:00
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Proof of ( a ) . m n = p q implies mq = np . So, b mq = b np . By Theorem 1.21, ( b mq ) 1 nq = ( b np ) 1 nq , and so ( b m ) 1 n = ( b p ) 1 q , and b r is well-defined. □

Proof of ( b ) . Let r = m n , s = p q where m , n , p , q , and n > 0 , q > 0 . Then,

( b r + s ) nq = ( b m n + p q ) nq = b mq + np = b mq b np = ( b m n ) nq ( b p q ) nq = ( b m n b p q ) nq = ( b r b s ) nq .

By Theorem 1.21,

[ ( b r + s ) nq ] 1 nq = [ ( b r b s ) nq ] 1 nq ,

and so b r + s = b r b s . □

Proof of ( c ) . b r = b t b r t b t since b > 1 and r t > 0 , and so b r is an upper bound of B ( r ) . To prove b r is the least upper bound, assume there is an upper bound b s of B ( r ) such that b t b s < b r . However, by the archimedean property, there is a t such that s < t < r , which is a contradiction since it implies b s < b t < b r since b > 1 and b s is an upper bound of B ( r ) . Thus, b r = sup B ( r ) . The same proof applies for any real x . □

Proof of ( d ) . By ( c ) ,

b x + y = sup B ( x + y ) = sup { b t } .

For t x + y , t . Letting r + s = t , r x , s y , r , s , we have b x + y = sup { b r + s } . Since b r + s = b r b s by ( b ) ,

b x + y = sup { b r } sup { b s } = sup B ( x ) sup B ( y ) = b x b y .
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2023-09-01 19:10
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