Exercise 1.9

Exercise 9: Suppose z = a + bi , w = c + di . Define z < w if a < c or a = c and b < d . Prove that this is an order. Does it have the least upper bound property?

Answers

Let z i = a i + b i .

Property 1.5(i): Assume z 1 z 2 . If a 1 a 2 , either z 1 < z 2 or z 2 < z 1 . Otherwise b 1 b 2 , in which case z 1 < z 2 or z 2 < z 1 .

Property 1.5(ii): Assume z 1 < z 2 and z 2 < z 3 . Then a 1 a 2 a 3 . If either of the inequalities is strict, a 1 < a 3 , and z 1 < z 3 . Otherwise, b 1 b 2 b 3 and all inequalities are strict, so that z 1 < z 3 .

This proves that the order is well-defined.

The set does not have the least upper bound property. Consider the set ℝi = { 0 + xi : i } . The set is bounded above by 1 . Assume for contradiction that α = a + bi is a least upper bound. It is clear that we must have a 0 . If a > 0 , then 1 2 α is another upper bound that is strictly smaller than α , contradicting minimality. Therefore, we must have a = 0 . Then α + i ℝi is greater than α , contradicting α being an upper bound.

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2023-08-07 00:00
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Proof of ordering. First prove Definition 1.5(i) holds. Consider z = a + bi , w = c + di . Since a , b , c , d which is an ordered set, there are 5 cases:

1.
If a < c then z < w .
2.
If a > c then z > w .
3.
If a = c and b < d then z < w .
4.
If a = c and b > d then z > w .
5.
If a = c and b = d then z = w .

So one and only one of the statements z < w , z = w , z > w is true.

Now prove Definition 1.5(ii) holds. Consider z 1 , z 2 , z 3 such that z 1 < z 2 , z 2 < z 3 . z 1 < z 2 implies either

1.
Re ( z 1 ) < Re ( z 2 ) , or
2.
Re ( z 1 ) = Re ( z 2 ) and Im ( z 1 ) < Im ( z 2 ) .

Similarly, z 2 < z 3 implies either

1.
Re ( z 2 ) < Re ( z 3 ) , or
2.
Re ( z 2 ) = Re ( z 3 ) and Im ( z 2 ) < Im ( z 3 ) .

Then, there are two cases for the relation between z 1 and z 3 :

1.
Re ( z 1 ) < Re ( z 3 ) , so z 1 < z 3 , or
2.
Re ( z 1 ) = Re ( z 2 ) = Re ( z 3 ) and Im ( z 1 ) < Im ( z 3 ) , so z 1 < z 3 .

So z 1 < z 2 , z 2 < z 3 implies z 1 < z 3 . □

This ordered set of complex numbers does not have the least-upper-bound-property.

Proof. Let A = { in : n } , which is bounded above by 1. Suppose a + bi = sup A . Since if a > 0 , we can find a such that a > a > 0 by the archimedean property, a = 0 , and bi = sup A . However, we can always find n > b , which contradicts that bi is an upper bound. Thus, with order as defined above does not have the least-upper-bound property. □

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2023-09-01 19:11
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