Exercise 3.4.2

Let P be a permutation matrix, i.e., an n × n matrix consisting of zeros and ones and such that there is exactly one 1 in every row and every column.

a)
Can you describe the corresponding linear transformation? That will explain the name.
b)
Show that P is invertible. Can you describe P1?
c)
Show that for some N > 0
PN := PP...P N times = I.

Use the fact that there are only finitely many permutations.

Answers

Solution a) Consider the linear transformation y = Px and each row of P. There is only one 1 in each row of P. Suppose in the first row of P, P1,j = 1, then y1 = p1x = xj, where p1 is the first row of P. Namely, xj is moved to the 1st place after the linear transformation. Similarly, for the 2nd row of P, suppose P2,k = 1, then y2 = xk and xk is moved to the 2nd place, so on and so forth. There is also only one 1 in each column, then the column indices in 1 entry P1,j,P2,k,P3,m,... comprise a permutation of n as (j,k,m,...). After multiplying by the permutation matrix P, the elements in x change their orders to [xj,xk,xm,...]

T.(ConsideringfromtheperspectiveofcolumnvectorsofPalsoworks.)

b) Suppose P is invertible, by multiplying P1, x = P1y. But we know y1 = xj, then we have Pj,11 = 1 so that xj can return to its original position. Similarly, y2 = xk, then Pk,21 = 1. Following this we can see that Pi,j1 = Pj,i if Pj,i = 1 and the rest are all 0. So we can see P is invertible and P1 = P

T.

c) Note that Px,P2x,P3x...PNx are all permutations of (x1,x2,...,xn). If PN can never equal to I, Px,P2x,P3x...PNx will be different permutations. And N can be infinitely big, so there will be infinitely many permutations of (x1,x2,...,xn), which is impossible. Thus there must be some N > 0, PN = I.

User profile picture
2018-11-29 00:00
Comments